Sell on clauses

[Speedy]

If club A sold a player for £1m plus 50% of the next sale and that player was then sold for £2m plus 30% of the next sale would club A then get £1m plus 15% of the next sale?

[LancashireHibby]

If club A sold a player for £1m plus 50% of the next sale and that player was then sold for £2m plus 30% of the next sale would club A then get £1m plus 15% of the next sale?

Club A would receive £1m from the original transfer and then £1m from their 50% clause and that's all.

[danhibees1875]

I don't think so, its only cash.

For instance if we sell Bamba for 50k + a decent player or 2 then Dunfermline would only get their cut on the 50k. :agree:

[BEEJ]

If club A sold a player for £1m plus 50% of the next sale and that player was then sold for £2m plus 30% of the next sale would club A then get £1m plus 15% of the next sale?
Well firstly it's usually a percentage of the mark-up in the value of the player between the two transactions - in your example, a percentage of the additional £1m.

But I see the point of your question. If the second transaction is similarly structured, thereby reducing the cash value of that transfer, does the original club get an appropriate share of the next sell-on?

One would have thought the answer was 'Yes', otherwise the terms of the second transaction could be negotiated so as to shut out the first club from any sell-on receipts at all.